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AIBE-XIX (19) Question Paper with Answers – Set A (English) – Serial Wise

Welcome to our comprehensive serial-wise solution of the All India Bar Examination (AIBE) XIX (19) Set A question paper. This post provides the complete question paper in serial order with detailed answers based on the official answer key.

AIBE-XIX (Set A) Full Question Paper with Answers (Serial Wise)

1. In which case was a registered society held to be an “authority” for the purpose of Article 12?

(A) Som Prakash vs. Union society hel
(B) Ajay Hasia vs. Khalid Mujib
(C) Sukhdev vs. Bhagatram
(D) R.D. Shetty vs. International Airport Authority

Answer: B (Ajay Hasia vs. Khalid Mujib)
Explanation: The Ajay Hasia case (1981) established that registered societies performing public functions can be considered “State” under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution when they are financially, functionally and administratively dominated by the government.

2. In which case did the Supreme Court of India held that fundamental rights cannot be waived?

(A) Gopala vs. State of Madras
(B) Kameshwar Singh vs. State of Bihar
(C) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
(D) Basheshar Nath vs. I.T. Commissioner

Answer: D (Basheshar Nath vs. I.T. Commissioner)
Explanation: In this landmark 1959 case, the Supreme Court ruled that fundamental rights cannot be waived by any person as they are granted by the Constitution to protect public interest, not just individual rights.

3. By which Constitutional Amendment was clause (4B) inserted into Article 16?

(A) 81
(B) 91
(C) 77
(D) 85

Answer: A (81st Amendment)
Explanation: The 81st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2000 inserted clause (4B) in Article 16 which allows the carry forward of backlog vacancies of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to subsequent years, beyond the 50% reservation limit.

4. Which of the following statement is correct about 106th Constitutional Amendment Act?

(i) It introduces Article 239A by which seats are reserved for women in legislative assembly of the national capital territory of Delhi.
(ii) It introduces Article 338 providing for the reservation of seats for women in the house of people.
(iii) It also adds Article 334A Which states in that the said amendment will commence after the first census have been taken after the commencement of the said Act.
(iv) The above stated shall cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of 15 years from search commencement.

(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(D) All of these

Answer: Withdrawn (As per final answer key)
Note: This question was withdrawn in the final answer key, meaning it wasn’t considered for evaluation.

5. The Parliament enacts the “Fair Housing Act, 2024”, which includes the following provisions:

(1) Section 3: Prohibits discrimination in renting or selling houses based on religion, caste, or gender.
(2) Section 6: Imposes a penalty of ₹10,000 for discrimination.
(3) Section 10: Makes it mandatory for landlords to disclose the religious background of all tenants in the previous 10 years.

A citizen challenges Section 10, arguing that it violates the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court declares Section 10 unconstitutional but upholds the other provisions of the law.

What principle did the court apply in this decision?
(A) Doctrine of Eclipse
(B) Doctrine of Severability
(C) Doctrine of Basic Structure
(D) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation

Answer: Withdrawn (As per final answer key)

6. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the

(A) Governor

(B) Committee on Public Undertakings

(D) Public Accounts Committee

Answer: (A) Governor

7. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India declares that the Supreme Court shall be a court of record?

(A) Article 119

(B) Article 111

(D) Article 135

Answer: (C) Article 129

8. Which article deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its members?

(A) 107

(B) 105

(D) 102

Answer: (B) 105

9. Which Constitutional Amendment Act inserted provisions related to GST?

(A) 99

(B) 100

(D) 102

Answer: (C) 101

10. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?

(A) Either House of Parliament

(B) Supreme Court

(D) Rajya Sabha

Answer: (A) Either House of Parliament

11. Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 considers force to be “Criminal Force”:

(A) When it is used unintentionally.

(B) When intentionally uses force only.

(D) When it is used in self-defence.

Answer: (C) When it is used intentionally without consent, causing injury, fear or annoyance.

12. According to Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum fine for making or using a document that resembles a currency note or a bank note under Section 182(1)?

(A) One hundred rupees

(B) Five hundred rupees

(D) One thousand rupees

Answer: (C) Three hundred rupees

13. According to the provisions of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, the right of private defence of property extends to the voluntary causing of death or of any other harm to the wrong-doer¹ in which of the offences committed or attempting to be committed?

(1) Robbery

(2) House-breaking after sunset

(3) Theft, mischief or house trespass

(A) (1) only

(B) (1) and (3) both

(D) (1), (2) and (3)

Answer: (D) (1), (2) and (3)

14. Rajesh, in a heated argument with Sunil, strikes him with a heavy iron rod. The blow fractures Sunil’s arm, and he is unable to use it for several weeks. The medical report confirms that the fracture amounts to grievous hurt. Which of the following offenses has Rajesh committed?

(A) Simple hurt under Section 323 of IPC

(B) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 325 of IPC

(D) Attempt to commit culpable homicide under Section 308 of IPC

Answer: (B) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 325 of IPC

15. Amit, intending to cause the death of Vijay, attacks him with a knife. Vijay sustains severe injuries and dies on the spot. The investigation reveals that Amit acted with the knowledge that his actions were likely to cause death. However, there is no evidence of premeditation or intent to murder Vijay. Which of the following offenses has Amit committed?

(A) Murder under Section 302 of IPC

(B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 304 of IPC

(D) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt under Section 325 of IPC

Answer: (B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 304 of IPC

16. Amit and Rani decide to break into a house at night with the intent of stealing valuables. They use a crowbar to force open the door, but before they can take anything, the owner of the house, Vikram, unexpectedly arrives home. Amit and Rani panic and run away without stealing anything. The police arrest them the following morning based on a complaint from Vikram. Which of the following offenses under the BNS have Amit and Rani committed?

(A) Attempt to commit theft

(B) House trespass with intent to commit theft

(D) Burglary

Answer: (B) House trespass with intent to commit theft

17. Punishment for rape in cases where the victim is a woman below the age of 16 or 12 is included in which section of the BNS?

(A) 64

(B) 65

(D) 72

Answer: (B) 65

18. A new offense of ‘Snatching’ has been introduced by the BNS. Which section of the BNS defines ‘Snatching’ as an offense?

(A) 308

(B) 303

(D) 304

Answer: (D) 304

19. Consider the following statements and answer the question given below:

Mr. Patel being a police officer receives a complaint and information that Raju was involved in a robbery of a bank and has also helped to hide the valuable properties in his farm, as stated by two villagers. With this regard, consider the following:

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The Police Officer Mr. Patel may arrest Raju without warrant when

(1) Raju can be arrested only if he commits a non-cognizable offence in the presence of Mr. Patel.

(2) Since the reasonable complaint against Raju has been received and there is a strong suspicion exists due to the testimony of villagers, he can be immediately arrested.

(3) Raju can be arrested only when he tries to escape or run away.

(4) Raju can be arrested so as to prevent him from making any inducement, threat or promise to any person acquainted with facts and circumstances.

Which of the above is/are the correct statement?

(A) (1) and (3)

(B) (2) and (4)

(D) Only (2)

Answer: (B) (2) and (4)

20. BNSS introduced the provision of registration of FIR relating to commission of cognizable offense irrespective of area where the offense is committed. This FIR is known as

(A) NCR

(B) Zero FIR

(D) Counter FIR

Answer: (B) Zero FIR

21. The BNSS mandates a forensic team to visit the crime scenes to collect evidence for offenses punishable with imprisonment for at least ____ years.

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 5

Answer: (C) 7

22. Which section of the BNSS allows for trials in absentia of proclaimed offenders?

(A) 251

(B) 349

(D) 366

Answer: (C) 356

23. Which section of BNSS facilitates trials and proceedings to be held in electronic mode ?

(A) 532

(B) 330

(D) 530

Answer: (D) 530

24. Which section of BNSS repeals the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(A) 531

(B) 101

(D) 1

Answer: (D) 1

25. Which section mandates State Government prepare and notify a witness protection scheme for the state with a view to ensure the protection of witnesses ?

(A) 98

(B) 198

(D) 398

Answer: (D) 398

26. Which section of BNSS mandates the appointment of a designated police officer in each district and police station to provide information about arrested individuals to the general public ?

(A) 25

(B) 35

(D) 45

Answer: (C) 37

27. Which section of BNSS introduces provisions for identifying, attaching, and forfeiting the property of proclaimed offenders located outside India?

(A) 74

(B) 76

(D) 86

Answer: (C) 84

28. Which section of BNSS places restrictions on the adjournment of trials, ensuring the expeditious resolution of cases?

(A) 146

(B) 246

(D) 356

Answer: (C) 346

29. A suit is pending in District Court A, but one of the parties, Meera, requests its transfer to District Court B, claiming that the judge in Court A is biased. The opposing party, Ravi objects, stating that the request is baseless. Who has the authority to decide whether the suit can be transferred?

(A) The District Court A where the suit is currently pending.

(B) The High Court or the Supreme Court

(D) A committee of local advocates

Answer: (B) The High Court or the Supreme Court

30. Maya files a suit in Court A for the recovery of a sum of money from her neighbor, Neha. During the proceedings, Neha requests that a third party, Seema, be added to the suit, as Seema is allegedly liable for the debt. Maya objects, claiming that Seema is not a necessary party. Court A then reviews the application and decides that Seema should indeed be included as a defendant. Which principle of the CPC is applied in this situation?

(A) Order 1, Rule 10 – Joinder and Substitution of Parties

(B) Order 7, Rule 11 – Rejection of Plaint

(D) Order 6, Rule 17 – Amendment of Pleadings

Answer: (A) Order 1, Rule 10 – Joinder and Substitution of Parties

31. Which section of the CPC allows for the appeal from original decrees?

(A) Section 96

(B) Section 100

(D) Section 104

Answer: (A) Section 96

32. Under the CPC, what is the maximum time limit for filing a written statement in a suit?

(A) 30 Days

(B) 60 Days

(D) 90 Days

Answer: (D) 90 Days

33. Which section of the CPC provides exemption of the President of India and the Governors of states from personal appearance in court?

(A) Section 132

(B) Section 133

(D) Section 130

Answer: (B) Section 133

34. What is the term used for a court’s power to transfer a case from one court to another under the Code of Civil Procedure?

(A) Res Judicata

(B) Reference

(D) Transfer of suits

Answer: (D) Transfer of suits

35. Under which order of the CPC the procedure for summary suits is provided?

(A) Order XXXV

(B) Order XXXVII

(D) Order XXXVI

Answer: (B) Order XXXVII

36. Which section of the CPC deals with the principle of “res judicata”?

(A) Section 11

(B) Section 10

(D) Section 9

Answer: (A) Section 11

37. ________ of the CPC provides for an interpleader suit.

(A) Section 88

(B) Section 89

(D) Section 86

Answer: (A) Section 88

38. Which section of the CPC provides for the payment of compensatory costs?

(A) Section 35

(B) Section 35 A

(D) Section 36

Answer: (B) Section 35 A

39. Which word is inserted in Section 22 of the BSA that was not present in Section 24 of the Evidence Act ?

(A) Inducement

(B) Coercion

(D) Promise

Answer: (B) Coercion

40. Existence of course of business when relevant is discussed in

(A) Section 12 of the BSA, 2023

(B) Section 13 of the BSA, 2023

(D) Section 15 of the BSA, 2023

Answer: (C) Section 14 of the BSA, 2023

41. In a criminal trial, Rajesh is accused of theft. During the investigation, the police recover a stolen laptop from a location known to be frequented by Rajesh. His fingerprints are found on the laptop. According to the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, how should the court interpret this piece of evidence?

(A) The recovered laptop and fingerprints are automatically considered conclusive proof of Rajesh’s guilt.

(B) The recovered laptop and fingerprints are circumstantial evidence that can be considered along with other evidence, but do not by themselves prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt.

(D) The fingerprints must be verified by at least two independent forensic experts before being presented in court.

Answer: (B) The recovered laptop and fingerprints are circumstantial evidence that can be considered along with other evidence, but do not by themselves prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt.

42. A Where a document is executed in several parts like printing, lithography or photography, video recording, computer resource as a electronic or digital records, the BSA 2023 classifies each part as a

(A) Primary evidence

(B) Secondary evidence

(D) Scientific evidence

Answer: (A) Primary evidence

43. Which section of BSA provides that no court shall require any communication between the Ministers and the President of India to be produced before it?

(A) 65

(B) 165

(D) 168

Answer: (B) 165

44. According to Section 46 of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, when character evidence is relevant in civil cases?

(A) Always relevant to prove conduct

(B) Only when related to other relevant fact

(D) Only in criminal cases

Answer: (B) Only when related to other relevant fact

45. As per Section 78(2) of the BSA 2023, presumption about the officer signing or certifying a document is:

(A) The officer’s signature is assumed to be forgery

(B) The officer did not hold the claimed officer character at the time of signing

(D) The document’s authenticity is independent of the official’s official character

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Answer: (C) The officer held the official character claimed when signing or certifying the document.

46. Under Section 146 of the BSA 2023, when the leading questions are permissible in the court proceedings ?

(A) Leading questions are always allowed during examination- in chief without restriction.

(B) Leading questions are not allowed during cross-examination

(D) Leading questions are permitted during cross-examination and when matters are introductory, undisputed, or sufficiently proved.

Answer: (D) Leading questions are permitted during cross-examination and when matters are introductory, undisputed, or sufficiently proved.

47. Which of the following is a characteristic of mediation?

(A) The mediator imposes a binding decision.

(B) It involves a neutral third party who facilitates negotiation between the parties.

(D) It is always court-ordered.

Answer: (B) It involves a neutral third party who facilitates negotiation between the parties.

48. A dispute arises between ABC Ltd. and XYZ Pvt. Ltd. regarding a contract that both parties had entered into. The agreement includes an arbitration clause, which states that any disputes shall be referred to arbitration. However, the parties fail to agree on the appointment of an arbitrator. Which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 would be applicable to resolve the issue of the appointment of an arbitrator?

(A) The court will appoint an arbitrator under Section 11 if the parties fail to agree on one.

(B) The parties must mutually select an arbitrator, and if they fail, the arbitration will not take place.

(D) The parties can resolve the appointment issue by opting for conciliation instead of arbitration.

Answer: (A) The court will appoint an arbitrator under Section 11 if the parties fail to agree on one.

49. Which of the following is not an advantage of using ADR ?

(A) It is generally faster than litigation.

(B) It offers more confidentiality than traditional court cases.

(D) It is often less expensive than court proceedings.

Answer: (C) It always results in a binding decision.

50. Kiran and Meera are involved in an arbitration, where Kiran was awarded Rs. 10 lakhs as compensation. Meera refuses to pay the amount, arguing that the award was not enforceable because of certain procedural irregularities in the arbitration process. Kiran decides to approach the court to enforce the arbitral award. Which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 governs the enforcement of an arbitral award?

(A) Section 34 of the Act deals with the enforcement of an arbitral award.

(B) Section 36 of the Act allows for the automatic enforcement of an arbitral award unless set-aside by the court.

(D) Section 11 of the Act deals with the enforcement of arbitral awards, not the appeal.

Answer: (B) Section 36 of the Act allows for the automatic enforcement of an arbitral award unless set-aside by the court.

51. Which section of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with specific performance of contract to execute a mortgage?

(A) Section 15

(B) Section 16

(D) Section 18

Answer: (D) Section 18

52. Under which section of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a contract cannot be specifically enforced?

(A) Section 10

(B) Section 12

(D) Section 14

Answer: (D) Section 14

53. Under which section of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 any person acquiring property in good faith without notice of the original contract is protected?

(A) Section 17

(B) Section 19

(D) Section 23

Answer: (B) Section 19

54. Under which section of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the court has the power to award damages in addition to specific performance?

(A) Section 18

(B) Section 19

(D) Section 21

Answer: (D) Section 21

55. Under which section of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the court has the power to grant an injunction to restrain the breach of a contract?

(A) Section 36

(B) Section 38

(D) Section 39

Answer: (C) Section 37

56. Under which section of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the court has the power to grant a mandatory injunction?

(A) Section 38

(B) Section 39

(D) Section 40

Answer: (C) Section 39

57. Under which section of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, the court has the power to grant a perpetual injunction?

(A) Section 36

(B) Section 38

(D) Section 39

Answer: (B) Section 38

58. Under which section of the Limitation Act, 1963, the limitation period for filing a suit for specific performance of a contract is three years?¹

(A) Article 54

(B) Article 55

(D) Article 59

Answer: (D) Article 59

59. Under which section of the Limitation Act, 1963, the limitation period for filing a suit for possession of immovable property is twelve years?

(A) Article 64

(B) Article 65

(D) Article 67

Answer: (B) Article 65

60. Under which section of the Limitation Act, 1963, the limitation period for filing a suit for a declaratory decree is three years?

(A) Article 56

(B) Article 57

(D) Article 59

Answer: (C) Article 58

61. Under which section of the Limitation Act, 1963, the limitation period for filing a suit for an injunction is three years?

(A) Article 110

(B) Article 111

(D) Article 113

Answer: (D) Article 113

62. Under which section of the Limitation Act, 1963, the limitation period for filing an appeal to the High Court from a decree or order of any subordinate court is ninety days?

(A) Article 116

(B) Article 117

(D) Article 119

Answer: (A) Article 116

63. Under which section of the Limitation Act, 1963, the limitation period for filing an appeal to the Supreme Court from a decree or order of the High Court is sixty days?

(A) Article 116

(B) Article 115

(D) Article 119

Answer: (C) Article 117

64. Under which section of the Limitation Act, 1963, the limitation period for filing a suit for compensation for wrongful imprisonment is one year?

(A) Article 74

(B) Article 75

(D) Article 77

Answer: (A) Article 74

65. Under which section of the Limitation Act, 1963, the limitation period for filing a suit for compensation for libel is one year?

(A) Article 74

(B) Article 75

(D) Article 78

Answer: (D) Article 78

66. Under which section of the Limitation Act, 1963, the limitation period for filing a suit for compensation for slander is one year?

(A) Article 74

(B) Article 75

(D) Article 79

Answer: (D) Article 79

67. Under which section of the Limitation Act, 1963, the limitation period for filing a suit for compensation for malicious prosecution is one year?

(A) Article 75

(B) Article 76

(D) Article 79

Answer: (A) Article 75

68. Under which section of the Limitation Act, 1963, the limitation period for filing a suit for compensation for false imprisonment is one year?

(A) Article 74

(B) Article 75

(D) Article 77

Answer: (C) Article 76

69. Under which Article of the Limitation Act, 1963 the period of limitation for a suit for the specific performance of a contract is 3 years ?

(A) Article 53

(B) Article 54

(D) Article 56

Answer: (B) Article 54

70. The definition of “claim” under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 includes:

(A) Counter-claim only

(B) Cross-complaint only

(D) Neither counter-claim nor cross-complaint

Answer: (C) Counter-claim and Cross-complaint both

71. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the District Commission shall have jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of the goods or services paid² as consideration does not exceed:³

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(A) Rupees one crore

(B) Rupees fifty lakh

(D) Rupees ten crore

Answer: (B) Rupees fifty lakh

72. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the State Commission shall have jurisdiction to entertain appeals against the orders of any District Commission within the State.

(A)⁴ Section 49

(B) Section 51

(D) Section 69

Answer: (A) Section 49

73. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the National Commission shall have jurisdiction to entertain appeals against the orders of any State Commission.

(A) Section 51

(B) Section 58

(D) Section 69

Answer: (C) Section 59

74. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the National Commission shall have jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration⁵ exceeds:

(A) Rupees one crore

(B) Rupees two crore

(D) Rupees fifty lakh

Answer: (B) Rupees two crore

75. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the limitation period for filing a complaint with a District Commission, a State Commission or the National Commission is:

(A) Two years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen

(B) Two years from the date of purchase of the goods or services

(D) Three years from the date of purchase of the goods or services

Answer: (A & C) Two years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen and Three years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen

76. Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, Lok Adalat can deal with

(A) Criminal cases only

(B) Civil cases only

(D) Any case which is pending before any court or any matter which is yet to be brought before the court for adjudication

Answer: (D) Any case which is pending before any court or any matter which is yet to be brought before the court for adjudication

77. Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is constituted to

(A) Lay down policies and principles for legal services under the Act.

(B) Provide legal aid and advice to the poor and needy.

(D) Organize Lok Adalats.

Answer: (C) Conduct legal awareness programs.

78. Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, which of the following is not a function of the State Legal Services Authority?

(A) To give legal aid to persons who satisfy the eligibility criteria under the Act.

(B) To conduct Lok Adalats.

(D) To undertake legal awareness programs.

Answer: (B) To conduct Lok Adalats.

79. Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, who is eligible to be a member of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)?

(A) A serving or retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India.

(B) A serving or retired Judge of the High Court of a State.

(D) A social worker with at least 10 years of experience in legal aid.

Answer: (A) A serving or retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India.

80. Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, what is the primary role of Lok Adalats?

(A) To conduct trials and deliver judgments.

(B) To promote conciliation and settlement of disputes.

(D) To punish offenders and enforce laws.

Answer: (B) To promote conciliation and settlement of disputes.

81. Which of the following statements is true about the Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India?

(A) Only individuals directly affected by an issue can file a PIL.

(B) PIL can be filed by any citizen for the enforcement of legal or constitutional rights of a public at large.

(D) The concept of PIL originated in the United Kingdom.

Answer: (B) PIL can be filed by any citizen for the enforcement of legal or constitutional rights of a public at large.

82. What is the full form of UNHCR?

(A) United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees

(B) United Nations Human Rights Council

(D) United Nations Development Programme

Answer: (A) United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees

83. The International Court of Justice is located at:

(A) New York

(B) Geneva

(D) Vienna

Answer: (C) The Hague

84. Which of the following is not a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council?

(A) Germany

(B) France

(D) United Kingdom

Answer: (A) Germany

85. The term “Force Majeure” refers to:

(A) An act of God or other events beyond the control of the parties.

(B) A legal obligation to perform a contract.

(D) The right to terminate a contract due to breach.

Answer: (A) An act of God or other events beyond the control of the parties.

86. Which of the following is an essential element of a valid contract?

(A) Intention to create legal relations

(B) Consideration

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above

87. What does the legal maxim “Ubi jus ibi remedium” mean?

(A) Ignorance of the law is no excuse.

(B) Where there is a right, there is a remedy.

(D) Let the buyer beware.

Answer: (D) Let the buyer beware.

88. Which of the following is not a type of bailment?

(A) Bailment for the exclusive benefit of the bailor

(B) Bailment for the exclusive benefit of the bailee

(D) Bailment for the purpose of sale

Answer: (A) Bailment for the exclusive benefit of the bailor

89. What is the meaning of the term “caveat venditor”?

(A) Let the buyer beware

(B) Let the seller beware

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D) None of the above

90. Which of the following is an example of an intellectual property right?

(A) Copyright

(B) Trademark

(D) All of the above

Answer: (B) Trademark

91. Which of the following is an example of a tort?

(A) Negligence

(B) Defamation

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above

92. What is the meaning of the term “mens rea”?

(A) Guilty act

(B) Guilty mind

(D) Intention

Answer: (B) Guilty mind

93. Which of the following is not a type of injunction?

(A) Temporary injunction

(B) Permanent injunction

(D) Punitive injunction

Answer: (B) Permanent injunction

94. What is the meaning of the term “ultra vires”?

(A) Within the powers

(B) Beyond the powers

(D) Limited powers

Answer: (B) Beyond the powers

95. Which of the following is not a source of international law?

(A) Treaties

(B) Customary law

(D) Municipal law

Answer: (D) Municipal law

96. What is the meaning of the term “perjury”?

(A) False statement under oath

(B) Defamation

(D) Trespass

Answer: (A) False statement under oath

97. Which of the following is an example of an alternative dispute resolution (ADR) method?

(A) Mediation

(B) Arbitration

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above

98. What is the meaning of the term “quid pro quo”?

(A) As much as he deserves

(B) Something for something

(D) On a quantum meruit

Answer: (C) In proportion

99. Which of the following is a type of easement?

(A) Right of way

(B) Right to light

(D) All of the above

Answer: (A) Right of way

100. What is the meaning of the term “estoppel”?

(A) Prevention from denying

(B) Freedom to contract

(D) Doctrine of lapse

Answer: (C) Doctrine of necessity